Posted by Bob Eager on March 12, 2006, 11:26 pm
What is your solution to the (then) requirement for a zero length pipe
between the hot water cylinder and the machine? Or should the machine
pump water out until it runs hot?
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Posted by David Hansen on March 13, 2006, 11:09 am
On 12 Mar 2006 23:26:24 GMT someone who may be "Bob Eager"
In a sensibly designed house the taps used most often will be near
the source of hot water and the hot water pipes insulated. The
washing machine will be too. As a result hot water will arrive at
the machine almost instantly.
Some/many houses are badly designed. In these it probably makes
sense to heat the water electrically, especially if there is a
shortage of water.
David Hansen, Edinburgh
I will *always* explain revoked encryption keys, unless RIP prevents me
Posted by Guy King on March 13, 2006, 12:12 pm
This is the answer I got this morning from Candy UK when I asked why
they don't sell hot/cold fill machines.
Good morning due to the cold water in take the water level intake have been
reduced washing machines only start to heat water at around 60degrees and
above so hot water intake is not needed hence why it it more energy
Make of that what you will.
Pay no attention to the man behind the curtain.
Posted by Doctor Drivel on March 13, 2006, 12:41 pm
As most DHW is 45-55C this is tripe. What they are hiding is that they want
to put less in the thing.
Posted by Brian Sharrock on March 13, 2006, 1:05 pm
Most DHW has cooled down to ambient temperature in the 'dead leg' from the
store to the washing machine inlet valve. What is the _measured_ temperature
of the inlet water at time A - start of fill; B - end of fill?